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Diana
01-04-2002, 14:21
I am trying to figure out something when it comes to numerology. I have bought Mary Greer's book - Tarot for Yourself, and I was enjoying working out my Personality Card, Soul card and such-like. And one needs to use one's date of birth. And then I thought, : "Hey man : what if the person who is doing this is for instance, a Muslim. Then the year of birth is different, and therefore the final addition would be different".

Now this would change everything.

How come numerology uses the Western way of counting the years? And why would it be the correct one?

Makes me think that this kind of thing is very arbitrary and not universal enough.

I hope I've made myself clear.

Thanks for any opinions or insight.

(Perhaps I should have put this in the Tarot forums, but then I thought it has more to do with divination than Tarot. Jade, please move it if you think it's in the wrong place.)

jade
01-04-2002, 18:21
nope, this is the right place. :)

love
jade

ps i used her book too, but many years ago. but in answer to your question............for ease of understanding. *most* people use the christian calendar.

Diana
02-04-2002, 01:59
I realise that the Christian calendar is the most common one.

But what I actually meant to say is, how come that the numbers taken from this dating system work when it comes to numerology?

I mean, the year 2002 just dates back to the year 0, which is just a point in time. It has no particular significance - except that it was chosen for political, religious and practical reasons. It does not even correspond to the year of birth of Jesus of Nazareth. What makes that year so special when it comes to numerology?

Perhaps another way of explaining what I want to say is, that if numerology had been discovered before our actual dating system came into use, people would still have been able to calculate things according to their date of birth, right? But how?

What makes our Western dating system so "magic" and so "numerological"? How is it that numerology works with our dating system? I mean, surely it would also work with the Muslim dating system, which, like ours, takes a point in time that is significant to them to date the years and passing of time. Or a Chinese dating system.

I'm finding this really hard to explain. Does someone know what I'm talking about and can help me explain in a more simple manner? :confused:

jade
02-04-2002, 02:13
i think i understand what you are asking.

the meanings of the numbers regarding dates of birth and soul numbers etc. were created to coincide with the numbers that appear from the christian calendar.

does that make sense?

so 2002 breaks down to 4 and the meaning for 4 suits this year. if this year was actually a 7 then the same meaning would apply....just for 7 instead of 4.

i'm not sure if i'm right.......it just makes sense to me somehow.

(but please correct me if i'm off base here)

in light,
ever learning,
jade

Alta
02-04-2002, 05:23
Maybe it is like astrology. The 'system' of astrology is not really what is happening in the sky. The 'system' is locked to some point in time, AQ could likely say when, but the real zodiac has continued to precess so a horoscope chart and the sky no longer match.
I read a long explanation in Linda Goodman's book Star Signs, about why numerology only works in English. Sorry, I think I am even confusing myself!! If it is any comfort Diana, I have wondered about that myself.

Rusty Neon
17-03-2004, 01:22
Originally posted by jade
the meanings of the numbers regarding dates of birth and soul numbers etc. were created to coincide with the numbers that appear from the christian calendar.

does that make sense?

so 2002 breaks down to 4 and the meaning for 4 suits this year. if this year was actually a 7 then the same meaning would apply....just for 7 instead of 4.


I would respectfully disagree with Jade. The number meanings in modern numerology were developed by Mrs. Dow Balliett. Those modern meanings are similar to the Pythagorean number meanings. The Pythagorean number meanings were developed by Pythagoreans who, at least the first Pythagoreans, lived in the Greek states before the creation of the Christian calendar. Thus, Diana has a point.

In Marion's post above, there is a reference to Linda Goodman who indicates that the modern numerology system works only in English. There's something to it perhaps. Arguably the number values assigned to the letters should depend on the language, as some letters are more common in some languages than in others. On the other hand, Balliett's letter/number values system, which is used in modern numerology, is based on a sequential grid, so frequency of letter usage in the language is not relevant.

In any event, based on the numerology books I've seen in French, modern French numerologists use the same letter/number values as Balliett's values for English. (In assigning values, the accents on the French letters are ignored, e.g., the letters e, é and è are all valued the same.)

Umbrae
17-03-2004, 09:30
In the Third century BC, Eratosthenese observed (at noon on the summer solstice) that the sun illuminated the bottom of a well in Aswan (on the Tropic of Cancer) as it crossed the meridian; but in Alexandria (500± miles north) shadows were cast by the sun at high noon. He reasoned that this was due to the curvature of the earth – concluding that it was spherical. By double measurement of the arc of the meridian between the two places in degrees and stadia, Eratosthenes determined the circumference of the earth to be 252,000 stadia (Columbus was using Eratosthenese works when he sailed in 1492 which lead to his conclusion that he had indeed found India…but he could not reconcile (or admit he was wrong) that India just wasn’t there…he was off by just a few miles). It was not until 1669 that Jean Picard computed the circumference of the earth to 24,500 miles, accurate but still off.

We had the Ptolemaic Theory, (Claudius Ptolemy used the works of Psoidonius (130-51 BC) to determine the earths circumference to be 180,000 stadia) placing the earth at the center of the solar system. This was refuted in 1543 by the publication of De Revolutionibus Orbium Coelestium by Nicolaus Copernicus who ‘proved’ the Heliocentric theory first championed by Aristarchus of Samos ( 4th century BC?).

Then we had the calendar systems…The Julian calendar was used and accepted by Europeans after the heyday of the Roman Empire. They dickered around about when Christ was born (using that event as a starting point, I think they should use the birth of Ty Cobb myself). Around 1614, Johannes Kepler decided to (Kepler proved much of Tycho Brahe’s work to be archaic, Newton did the same to Kepler, who in turn was refuted by Leverrier, and everyone fell to Einstein) place Christ’s birth at 4 B.C.E. Recently they decided that Kepler was off and the J.C. was born in 6 B.C.E. (but they don’t say if they count year 0 or not…).

But the equinox kept falling behind, on the calendar one full day every 130 years.

By the 1500’s, the spring equinox was all the way back to early March.

This was a dreadful situation…

How can we celebrate Easter without ‘knowing’?

So the pope decided to mandate a working calendar. 1582 was the year that Pope Gregory XIII ordered ten days to be dropped from the calendar…so that the equinox (vernal) was on March 20th, as it had been during the time of the Council of Nicea (now there is a historical event worth your while to research…woooo hooo!).

Also “New Years” was moved from March 31st, to January 1st. Leap years were added.

Most European nations adopted the Gregorian reform, with the exception of England and its Colonies, which held out until 1752. At that time, 11 days had to be cut from their calendar.

Now the first Chronometer was not invented until 1660 by Christian Huygens. So until that time – time could not be accurately measured, and longitude was guesswork.

You see in celestial navigation…Latitude is easy. You take a reading from heavenly bodies. But Longitude my friends, is difficult. You are moving, on a moving body, sighting other moving bodies and attempting to justify relative locations. Now if you know how fast you are moving and for how long (time measurement), you can guestimate approximate location.

Worse yet…this all assumes a Eurocentric system. Not a Judaic or Arabic system, and since J.C. was not European…

So if the death and resurrection of J.C. is fixed to the Lunar calendar (first full moon etc.), how come the birth is fixed to the Solar calendar (3 days after the Winter Solstice).

Now anyone worth their weight in salt knows that in the ‘Holy Land’ you don’t tend your flocks in the mountains in December, also in an agrarian society, you do not pay taxes in the middle of winter, you pay after the harvest.

Anyway…here’s the nut…!

What is Numerology based on?

An un-rectified Julian or Gregorian calendar?

It all assumes that the birth date of old J.C. being accurate was year 1 (AD). But that was refuted in 1614 by Kepler…and now they believe he was off by a couple of years…


BTW: and if you aren’t hep to the Council of Nicia…you really do need to check it out. Do a google on the Nestorians.

Where is the all going?

I mean seriously…the current Gregorian calendar was based upon Ecclesiastical convenience – not fact. And if it was ‘agreed’ that JC was born in 4 B.C. then all numerological studies would be off by at least five digits (since the year 0 is not counted).

So numerology…and Personality, soul, and year cards…they would be based upon myth…

And if Myth is more powerful than truth…

Is it unfair for us to tweak our own numerological systems?

Just a question folks…

vast portions plagiarized from a prior post of my own. Research is from The Practical American Navigator by Nathaniel Bowditch, the History Channel, The Learning Channel, Internet sources, and so on and so forth,…

HOLMES
17-03-2004, 10:05
in the system itself,

for the numbers of each letter is assigned to every english alaphet,

(i dont' understand how the birthdate, would be differnt for arab countries and other such countries ).

the name it self would have to have their respective language assigned to the numerology system io(in other words)
suppose a language uses 30 alaphebet (does any eheh)
the numbers would just keep on getting assing from 1 to 30 .

it really is a universal system. like the tarot , astrology,
perhaps though chaldean numerology which i know nothing about would be a better system, (i only seen one review on amazon which says caledean numerology is more accurate but that is it so i have no more basis for that claim ).

Alta
17-03-2004, 17:59
Linda Goodman's Star Signs claims that her system is Chaldean. It is significantly different because it does not follow the A=1, B=2 etc rule. There does not seem to be a pattern (to my eye) to how the letters are valued.

Phoenix Rising
17-03-2004, 20:39
I know of a famous numerologist in the 18th century by the name of Cheiro who used the Chaldean methods, he seemed very accurate in his predictions. Although they didn't use the number 9 in their lettering system as that was assigned to God.
Also the Mayan calendar as we know is very accurate, and was based on mathematics. Modern mathematicians based everything on base-10 calculations, but now they they have discovered that certain formulas especially Pi is incorrect. And that things are based on base-12.
Also, when the calendars were changed either Julian was it? That it was done on purpose to disrupt our own natural rhythms, we were seasonal creatures(just look at the animals, they don't go by calendars) How else to disempower feeling, sensitive, vibrational beings?To get them out of tune with nature.
But a very complex subject and I have read their explanations some where along the line.
Good Question!

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