Pipistrelle
For those who "know"...
I have just started reading The Astrologer's Handbook by Frances Sakoian and Louis S. Acker and have stumbled on the short early section about masculine and feminine signs (pp.19-21). Masculine signs are described as positive and feminine signs as negative. It is accompanied by a chart showing the "Masculine signs" and the "Negative signs". For example:
"In a man's chart such a preponderance [of masculine signs] is favourable. However, in a woman's chart it can indicate an inclination to be more aggressive than is traditionally considered appropriate for her sex."
Now, I'm not a femininist by any means (I can't even spell it) but this does strike me as a little harsh. Is this just an outdated view or is there a basis in astrological theory and, if so, can anyone explain it a little more kindly?
Pip
I have just started reading The Astrologer's Handbook by Frances Sakoian and Louis S. Acker and have stumbled on the short early section about masculine and feminine signs (pp.19-21). Masculine signs are described as positive and feminine signs as negative. It is accompanied by a chart showing the "Masculine signs" and the "Negative signs". For example:
"In a man's chart such a preponderance [of masculine signs] is favourable. However, in a woman's chart it can indicate an inclination to be more aggressive than is traditionally considered appropriate for her sex."
Now, I'm not a femininist by any means (I can't even spell it) but this does strike me as a little harsh. Is this just an outdated view or is there a basis in astrological theory and, if so, can anyone explain it a little more kindly?
Pip