22 Revelations' Chapters

NightWing

Clearer!

DoctorArcanus: Thank-you for helping to clarify my words. Yes, of course I was referring to very limited access and interest in the Hebrew version of what Christians call the Old Testament. Christians naturally knew, and even revelled in, the various stories of the OT, but sourced from the Greek and even more so in the west, the Latin versions. For what was a rather monolithic Catholicism, the Vulgate was THE version, used in churches, seminaries, etc. for many centuries, to the exclusion of all others. Even to this very day, the Catholic church officially recognises only a small handful of translations as valid, like the Douay-Rheims in English. The Authorised King James and other Protestant versions are not among them, lacking as they do a number of "books" seen as canonical by Catholicism.

It is worth noting that the most complete form of the OT existed in Greek from before the time of Jesus, and NOT in Hebrew. This was the Septuagint from 3rd century BCE Alexandria in Hellenic Egypt. Given how few people in Palestine knew Hebrew by the 1st century BCE, and how many knew Greek(and Aramaic), some have speculated that even the Torah and the Prophets that Jesus heard and read in the synagogues of his day were in Greek, and not Hebrew at all.

Apparently, the canon of a Hebrew biblical text for the Jews was still being determined in Rabbinical schools some five hundred years later, well after the NT writings were composed. Lamentations, Esther, and many psalms(among others) were considered of questionable canonicity by the Jews, and would not necessarily have been available through Jewish sources, such as a local synagogue. If Langton had them(in Hebrew), I wonder where he got them. Some of those books and parts are still excluded by most Protestants.

I will have to check my sources on Langton. Thanks.
 

Ross G Caldwell

Before the thread diverges too much (Christian knowledge of the Hebrew bible in the middle ages is a very interesting subject, but I don't know if it is too tangential to the thread - maybe, maybe not) - does anybody mind if I go back to the original question? :

BemboBimbo said:
Is there any information on correspondences between the 22 Trumps and 22 Revelations' chapters? I know that many images and concepts are undoubtedly from Revelations, but I mean specifically chapter-by-chapter, trump-by-trump correlations. Some require tedious mental acrobatics, but others are too brazen to ignore: Chap. 1, John as Magician introducing his vision; Chap. 20 is the Last Judgement; Chap. 21 is the New Jerusalem as Bride; and others somewhat more subtle yet powerful.

I think somebody (Shephard?) made the most systematic attempt at correspondences between the Apocalypse and the trumps. I don't have his book so I can't say much about it.

I think you're right, some of the Book of Revelations' imagery is "too brazen to ignore". But I think it is explicable more in a general sense than as a systematic attempt to correlate chapters.

My own opinion is that the imagery of the Book of Revelation was so much a part of the late-medieval consciousness that that in itself explains why there may be textual-iconographic correspondences. The last seven (or eight if you include Death) trumps show "Apocalyptic" subjects - Hell, the Heavens, Judgement. The trump XXI as it is portrayed in the Visconti-Sforza pack brings to mind the Celestial city; but the 22 trumps don't need to systematically illustrate the Apocalypse for such an image to be the last one - it is a fitting last image that everyone would understand. If it was the highest card - which we don't know.

Symbols like the Devil, the, Star(s), Moon and the Sun are too generic to derive from a particular source. So too Death and the Devil. Devil doesn't correspond to chapter 15 of Revelation, but 16 sounds good for the Tower. (Vials being poured on the earth!)

I think calling John a "Magician" in chapter one is unjustified. A prophet is a very different thing from a magician in medieval sources - one tells the truth, the other lies and deceives. John calls himself a servant who gives a prophecy - not a magician who performs wonders or tricks.

Lastly, most importantly, we know how the Apocalypse was illustrated at the same time as the tarot, and they don't look anything alike - even when there are twenty-two illustrations! (The Flemish Apocalypse is the best example, but there are also popular books like Shepherd's Almanacs and other illustrated Apocalypses that don't necessarily have 22 subjects).

So by studying the Apocalypse, you are entering part of the late-medieval world-view; by studying the early tarots, you are entering the late-medieval (some would say "renaissance", but it's a value-judgement) world-view; the Apocalypse informs the tarot, not as a direct source, but as a background source - at least the last part of the trump series is constructed according to a world-view deeply informed by the Apocalypse, with the expectation of a last Judgement and resurrection, and (maybe, depending on how you interpret it) the descent of the New Paradise, the Celestial City.

In answer to whether the trumps, theoretically, *could* have been a systematic attempt to portray to 22 chapters of the Book of Revelation, the answer is yes - this division of the book was widespread in Latin bibles by this time.

In answer to whether Christians knew the Hebrew alphabet had twenty-two letters, the answer is yes, it was basic education (for those who were educated) and the Hebrew alphabet (the names of the letters, not the form) was present in the Latin bible.

Whether Christians studied and knew Hebrew, the answer is - very seldomly (Ramon Llull for instance knew some Hebrew, and so did Pierre Amiel (Ameilh) in the 14th century - one could find others). If I remember correctly, there is a good article in the Jewish Encyclopedia about Christian knowledge of Hebrew in the middle ages and early 15th century.

Thanks to NightWing, Stephen Langton (Langdon) was brought up. He proves to have been a bad choice for ignorance of Hebrew! He compiled a dictionary of Hebrew words from the Old Testament, with definitions. His dictionary is present in many manuscripts of the Latin bible, as an appendix, quite often immediately following the Apocalypse.

So when we consider that Andrea of Caesarea divided the Apocalypse into 24 chapters in Greek, I am inclined to think the Greek alphabet might have been on his mind (after all, he would have numbered his divisions with Greek letters in the original in the sixth century); and when we consider that Langton had an interest in Hebrew words and divided his Apocalypse into 22 chapters, it is not far-fetched to think he might have been thinking hebraically.

But who knows? ;-)

Ross
 

DoctorArcanus

Ross G Caldwell said:
....the Apocalypse informs the tarot, not as a direct source, but as a background source - at least the last part of the trump series is constructed according to a world-view deeply informed by the Apocalypse, with the expectation of a last Judgement and resurrection, and (maybe, depending on how you interpret it) the descent of the New Paradise, the Celestial City.

I agree whith the "indirect source" point of view. My impression is that this point of view is shared by many people here on ATF, and this is quite exceptional :)
Of course, the question of how this indirect influence reached tarot is open. Possibly whoever created tarot mixed different sources (as suggested, for instance, by Robert LePendu). Or maybe the diffrent sources influenced a single text that was the basis of Tarot. Or maybe Tarot was originally independent from the Revelation and it was later (i.e. after Bembo) Revelationalized.

I know it's off topic, but I found in a book an illustration from this manuscript of a jewish juridic text by Jacob ben Asher. The manuscript was written in Mantua in 1435....
http://www.kb.nl/gabriel/treasures/country/Vatican_City/vc04.html

Marco
 

Ross G Caldwell

DoctorArcanus said:
I agree whith the "indirect source" point of view. My impression is that this point of view is shared by many people here on ATF, and this is quite exceptional :)

Really? I hadn't noticed ;-)

Of course, the question of how this indirect influence reached tarot is open. Possibly whoever created tarot mixed different sources (as suggested, for instance, by Robert LePendu). Or maybe the diffrent sources influenced a single text that was the basis of Tarot. Or maybe Tarot was originally independent from the Revelation and it was later (i.e. after Bembo) Revelationalized.

My loose idea is that the person who created the trumps wanted to add an additional level of "meaning" to an already present allegorical interpretation of the regular deck. I think the idea that the four-fold regular deck represented 4 conditions of life - whether four levels of society, bourgeois, peasants, clergy, elite (aristocrats) - or four virtues and/or vices, was a common understanding.

Johannes of Rheinfelden called the deck a perfect representation of the world as it is, the "status mundi", and said two suits represented good and two evil; preachers like Bernardino of Siena used the suits as symbols of vices. Even though there is no proof that anybody saw four classes of people in the suits, I think it likely that somebody thought of it.

So all that is missing from the deck of cards is higher things. Marziano added 16 Roman gods to a four-suited deck (and changed the suits to virtues and vices). I think the tarot-inventor wanted to add something as well - and chose things higher than the "status mundi": the highest people in the world (higher than kings) Emperors and Popes, concepts like Love, Triumph and the Virtues, Fortune, the reversal of fortune, Death and the otherworld, finally the highest of all - whether Judgement or the New World.

But it is not the arrangement of the subjects that troubles me, but their number. The question becomes - did the subjects decide the number, or the number the subjects?

If the first, we must assume there is a systematic logic that includes certain categories and excludes others - why no Prudence among the virtues, why not all the planets, why two Popes and Emperors (or a male and female of each), etc. We might ask, as in Marco's second option, if the series is based on a specific text (it is clear it is not the Apocalypse, in any case); if it IS based on a specific text, this would explain the choice of subjects and their order. In the meantime, we have to theorize what the original order and number was, and interpret that theoretical object.

Basically, if the number was incidental, and the allegory could follow its own logic, it would seem more logical to have the three estates or four classes or whatnot represented by one each; all the virtues should be there (and maybe vices too); all the planets, etc. Of course, the answer is "They didn't do this, so we have to explain what they did do, not what we would have done" - yes, but we might try to ask a simpler question first, one without so many difficulties (the worst of which is deciding the original order) - if the trumps had to have 21 (or 22) cards, or 14 or some other number, or if the allegories could spin any way they wanted.

If it IS the first choice (a pre-decided number), then the "omissions" are more easily explained. Prudence is a "Cardinal" Virtue, but it is also distinct in many ways from the other three (Aquinas makes the point, and it seems to be current, if I can take the evidence of a manuscript in the Visconti library from 1403 as representative). The fact that all seven planets are not present is also explained - Sun and Moon are the most important, and Star stands for the rest.

I personally favor this option, also for another reason - it explains the Bagatella or Bagattino card much better than the first option. It seems the game HAD to have a "pittance", something which litterally means "the thing of least value"; this suggests to me that the idea of the game, and the number of allegorical subjects, was thought out in advance, and then allegories were chosen (in a low-middle-high typology, common in iconography), and then they were fitted into the pre-ordained scheme of number, cutting out some and keeping others as typical. The game had to start with "bagatella" (B) and went to "angelo" (A) (basso and alto - low and high). The cards in between had to represent an ascending scale (ascending in meaning, not simply physical, or he would have started with Hell).

Anyway, it's a rough theory, but that's why I think the number determined the *final* choice of subjects, and that's why I don't think it is based directly on a text.

I know it's off topic, but I found in a book an illustration from this manuscript of a jewish juridic text by Jacob ben Asher. The manuscript was written in Mantua in 1435....
http://www.kb.nl/gabriel/treasures/country/Vatican_City/vc04.html

Most of the 15th century in northern Italy was the best time for Jews in a long time.

Ross